Mark 2:7
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Why doth this man thus speak? he blasphemeth: who can forgive sins but one, [even] God? (ASV)
Pro
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Continued from Mark 1:1 Inventory of Significant Editing in the First Gospel: Significant Variant #11:
?? ????? ????? ????? ????????? ??? ??????? ??????? ???????? ?? ?? ??? ? ????
"Why doth this man thus speak? he blasphemeth: who can forgive sins but one, [even] God? (ASV)"
And Metzger commentary:
" "
And NIGTC commentary:
" "
JW:
Once again Thank God for Bet Ehranncyman who alerts me to this one and forces me to Edit my own Editing thread (I Am as bad as Eusebius!). Codex Bezae, an Oldie and a Goodie lacks "???", "one", for the phrase "??? ? ????", "one God".
The Motivation for the Change could be Patripassionism:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Patripassionism
which is the Belief that Jesus was the Father God. When "Mark's" Jesus asks the rhetorical question, "who can forgive sins but one God?" The use of "one" here was Ammunition for the Patripassionistas to argue that qualifying that only "one" God/Divine Creature could Forgive meant that Jesus and The Father were the Same. Exorcism of the "one" here reduces the caliber of the Ammo. I tell you the Truth though, this one is weak as even without "one" there would still be an Implication that Jesus is the same as the Father, "who can forgive sins but God?".
It does though once again illustrate a need for a Textual Commentary on the Christian Bible in place of Metzger's Textual Commentary on the Christian Bible (a Complete one).
--JoeWallack 09:11, 5 Dec 2006 (CST)
Con
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Neutral
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