Then spake the Chaldeans to the king in the Syrian language, O king, live for ever: tell thy servants the dream, and we will show the interpretation. (ASV)
Anachronism. Why would the "Chaldeans" speak to a Babylonian king in "the Syrian language"? They would have spoken Accadian, not Aramaic. If this is based on actual history, it must have happened much later. --FreezBee 11:09, 31 Jan 2006 (CST)
Aramaic was the lingua franca of that world and the Chaldeans would not want to exclude their colleagues from their statement to the king, since they were evidently speaking for all of them.
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